I re-read the answers Alvin provided for us regarding everything we all needed to know about a sv* and I have another question, that I couldn't figure out the answer to.
Yesterday, another co-worker of mine got sick shortly after lunch. She at first blamed it on the food she had eaten, as did the rest of the office who ate from this particular restaurant. She went home early because she didn't want to v* anymore at work (who could blame her).
So, this morning, she's back in, so everyone welcomed her back and asked her how she was feeling. She said that she left work at 3, was home by 3:30 and in bed by 3:35. She slept for several hours, had no dinner because she was n* and then went to sleep. She woke up feeling much better, eyes a little glassy, and very hungry. So, I asked her if we were going to take that restaurant off our our list of places to order from and she said probably, but she didn't think it was the food. Her husband told her when she got home that he had the same thing on Sunday night. Apparantly, yesterday, shortly after lunch, she got very hot and that's when the v* started. Her husband is a cop and works nights. The last time she saw him was Sunday afternoon, he ended up working a double shift so she hadn't seen him again until yesterday afternoon when she got home. He never mentioned to her that he had gotten sick because it was so fast moving he thought it had to do with something he ate also.
Here's my question. Alvin repeatedly stated that in order to catch a sv*, one would have to ingest the particals of v* or fecal matter. Since her husband was perfectly fine on Sunday afternoon, how did she manage to catch it from him if she didn't come in contact with him at all until yesterday? Does this mean he was contagious BEFORE the symptoms started? I also thought that it was possible that they were both exposed together and it just hit him sooner than her, which is a possibility, but when I spoke with her again, she said that she had only seen him on Sunday afternoon, not any days before that because of his hectic schedule. In fact, the last time the 2 were together running errands was on Thursday afternoon/evening, before he left for work, so, that was several days before he got sick, and several more days since she had gotten sick. So basically, they weren't together anywhere except on Sunday afternoon, which they spent at home playing with their twins.
So my question for Sage/Alvin is how is this possible? Alvin calmed alot of nerves on this board by telling everyone the only way to catch it was to ingest the virus itself. This is an example where that wasn't so. I'm not trying to start trouble, and I'M NOT A DOCTOR, but I was just curious as to how this was possible. How is it possible for a virus to spread like this (and she is pretty sure it was that because she was slightly feverish when she got home) if the only contact they had with each other was about 8 hours prior to her husband v*. Could it be, was he contagious before the symptoms started? Like a cold?
I also want to restate that I'm not asking this question because I'm panicking that I may have been exposed to a sv, I'm just asking out of curiosity. I'm in control and the emet isn't.
JudyEdited by: babygap5